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The Light Shines in the Darkness...
 
 

 
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Hebrews 10:35

Reply:

                A person who is only outwardly Christian can most certainly throw away his confidence.

 

James 5:19-20

Reply:

               Nowhere does it say that the one who wandered from the truth was ever justified or regenerated to begin with.  The person who returns to Christ and truly repents will save his own soul and will cover many sins (i.e. all sins).

 

2 Peter 1:5-11

Reply:

This is a misrepresentation of Calvinistic doctrine.  Christians are to exercise their best effort to godliness.  However, theologically, this best effort is a power that is wholly and totally the work of God. 

“…forgotten his purification from his former sins”: It is possible for Christians to fall into sin.  In that case they would be chastised by God (Psalm 119:67, etc.), but they would not lose their salvation.   In verse 10, Peter tells his readers to make certain that they have been called and chosen for salvation (“entrance into the eternal kingdom of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ”; verse 11).  

 

2 Peter 2:1

Reply:

               The word for Master is not the word for Lord, kurios, but rather, it is despotes, the Greek word where we get our word ‘despot’. However, the word in Greek denotes ownership.  Peter is making an analogy to masters and their slaves.  Just as masters buy their slaves and expect them to obey, God created all men and expects them to obey His every command.  These heretics will either deny that God created them (i.e. Gnosticism), or they will deny God entirely (i.e. atheism or polytheism).  There is nothing in this verse that teaches that Christ paid the penalty for the sins of those in hell.

 

2 Peter 2:20-22

Reply:

-Nowhere in this passage does it say that these people were justified.  Thus, as in most of these passages, this could always be interpreted that these false teachers gave an outward profession and a visible change of life (“escaped the defilements of this world”) because they heard the Gospel (“by the knowledge of the Lord and Savior Jesus Christ”).  This response of these false teachers to the Gospel was just clinging to another fad of the day like many in our day and age.

-These men may be compared to the seed that falls on rocky ground (Matthew 13:5-6).  These seeds had no root (were not regenerated and sealed by the Spirit), but they immediately sprang up (response to a new fad).

 

2 Peter 3:16-17

Reply:

-The last sentence is a horrible misreading of the Scriptures.  It is combining the fates of two different people as one.  Verse 16 is talking about the false teachers.  They will be destroyed. Verse 17 is talking to those within the visible church, and he is warning them about the false teachers.  All he says about those who are taken away by these teachers is that they will “fall from your own steadfastness.” 

-First, there is no indication that these people who fall were ever justified. 

-Second, there is no sign that it is total apostasy.  Let me explain. In Matthew 24:24, Jesus says that the elect can be led astray by false teachers.  These men could have just been led astray by false teachers that told them that it was OK to commit a certain kind of sin.  Thus, these men would lose their sanctification (“steadfastness”), not their salvation.

 

1 John 1:7, 9

Reply:

-This is a misrepresentation of Protestant theology (see Westminster Confession chapter 11 part 5 http://www.reformed.org/documents/index.html ). 

-Christ paid the penalty for all the sins of the elect.  However, this forgiveness is not applied until they have saving faith.  After that, Christ continually acts as an Advocate before the Father and forgives us of our sins as they take place (1 John 2:1).  “Therefore, He is able to save forever those who draw near to God through Him, since He always lives to make intercession for them” (Hebrews 7:25).

 

1 John 2:28

Reply:

-Jesus also said, “Abide in Me, and I in you” (John 15:4).  So, according to Akin, is Jesus is commanding himself to exercise His best effort to abide in the disciples?  Unless Akin is a Nestorian, his argument is dead.

-In fact, the proper exegesis of this passage flies back in his face.  See this article (verse 4 in particular) for details: http://aomin.org/John15.html

 

Revelation 3:4

Reply:

               Of course, as with all passages like this, where does it say that these people who “soiled their garments” were ever justified to begin with?  These garments in the metaphor could be applied to the visible outward profession of faith (as opposed to their spiritual standing).

 

Revelation 3:5/Exodus 32:33

Reply:

-As to Revelation 3:5, we must remember the logical maxim: a conditional statement asserts nothing indicatively.  This is descriptive of true believers and not prescriptive on how to enter heaven. Therefore, it is actually a promise to the true believers that their names will never be erased from the book of life.

-As to Exodus 32:33, this book is the scroll of the physically living (not the Book of Life) which the nation of Israel made when they came out of Egypt.  Names would be eliminated from the scroll year after year as people died.  This practice is recorded in Ezekiel 13:9.  A better passage that he could have cited instead would be Psalm 69:28.

-Psalm 69:28:  Charles Spurgeon comments:

 

This clause is parallel with the former, and shows that the inner meaning of being blotted out from the book of life is to have it made evident that the name was never written there at all. Man in his imperfect copy of God's book of life will have to make many emendations, both of insertion and erasure; but, as before the Lord, the record is for ever fixed and unalterable.”

               -Charles Spurgeon

http://bible.crosswalk.com/Commentaries/TreasuryofDavid/tod.cgi?book=ps&chapter=069&verse=028

 

Augustine also agrees that the names that are written in the actual book of life can never be erased:

 

“Let them be blotted out from the book of the living” (ver. 29). For had they been some time written therein? Brethren, we must not so take it, as that God writeth any one in the book of life, and blotteth him out…So then without doubt they will not consent that have been written. How then are these men blotted out from that book wherein they were never written? This hath been said according to their own hope, because they thought of themselves that they were written. What is, “let them be blotted out from the book of life”? Even to themselves let it be evident, that they were not there. (emphasis mine)

 –Augustine, On the Psalms 69.29

http://www.ccel.org/fathers2/NPNF1-08/npnf1-08-76.htm#P1818_1534593

 

-Thus, it is worthy to note that although Akin claims to hold to the doctrine of Augustine and Thomas Aquinas, both Augustine and Aquinas did not believe that someone could be erased from the Book of Life!

 

Revelation 3:11

Reply:

-This verse never gives any indication that those who lose their crown were ever justified, regenerated, etc.

-Jesus is talking to the visible church at Philadelphia (Revelation 3:7).  The crown is reserved for those who “overcome” (verse 12; i.e. persevere to the end).  It is not as though they actually possessed the crown to begin with (i.e. “what you have”=faith).  Thus, the sense of what the Lord Jesus is saying is, “Hold fast your faith, so that no one can take away your hope of eternal life.”

-In the verse right before it, Christ says that He will cause them to persevere through temptation.

-As in John 15:4, this could be a case of the aorist, imperative, constative.  See the commentary on verse 4 in this article: http://aomin.org/John15.html

 

Revelation 22:19

Reply:

-No where does it say they will lose their justification. Rather, this is promising that unbelievers will never enter the kingdom of Heaven.

-Who are those who would deny the words written in this book?  They are the non-Christians who deny Christ’s resurrection and coming.  The Gospel message is made to all men that if they believe they will have a part in the tree of life and the holy city.  This is merely reaffirming that unless one believes in the Gospel that they will not have eternal life. 

-The promise to those who add to the book is that they will receive the plagues in the book.  The plagues in the book are plagues upon unbelievers.  The intention of John (the author) is that to add or to subtract are the same thing (i.e. to not believe in what was written).  Thus, the threat in verse 19 is for unbelievers.

-It is the Holy Spirit that confirms the inspiration of the Word of God in someone’s heart (Luke 24:32, John 16:13-14). Thus, those who take away from or add to this book (i.e. to not believe in what was written) are unbelievers who don’t have the Holy Spirit.

-Therefore, only unbelievers (outside or inside the visible church) would not believe in the things written in this book.

 

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Response to Akin’s Rebuttal:

 

All quotes from James Akin come from: 

James Akin, “Are All True Christians Predestined to Persevere?” (1996).

http://www.cin.org/users/james/files/loss.htm

 

John 6:37-40

-It is clear in this passage that Christ has come down to do the will of the Father (v.38).

-The will of the Father is that Christ should lose none of those that were given to Him but to give them eternal life (v.39).

-Verse 38-40 explains verse 37.  Thus, those that are given to the Son in verse 39 are the same ones as those who come in verse 37.

-Thus, when Akin says:

 

If you come to Jesus, he won't cast you out. But that doesn't mean you can't leave.

 

What does he not get about losing none?!

-He then says:

 

It is the Father’s will that he lose none of those given to him. It is also the Fathers will that nobody commit murder and adultery, but that doesn’t mean that people don’t commit murder and adultery. They do. You have to distinguish between which divine will you are talking about, the will by which he desires what will happen and the will by which he decrees what will happen.

 

I’m sorry?  Christ can fail to do the Father’s will? The difference between God’s desire for every human to obey His Law and Christ to accomplish the will of the Father in the work of redemption is that humans can refuse to do the Father’s will but Christ cannot.  The next question I would have for Mr. Akin is: If you believe that Christ can fail to do the Father’s will in not losing anything, then do you believe that He can fail to raise those up who believe in Him on the last day?

-Next, he talks about Judas again (see my response to John 17:9-12 above) and assumes that the Father ‘gave’ Judas in a soteriological sense.  This is the fallacy of equivocation.  He assumes ‘gave’ in that passage means the same thing in this one.

 

John 6:44

Akin says:

 

Again, absolutely true. But again the The Greek word for “can” is present tense and the Greek word for “come” is inceptive second aorist, meaning to begin to continually come. And the Greek for “draw” is inceptive first aorist, indicating the Father beginning and continuing to draw him.

 

-Akin has recently admitted that his interpretation of the Greek in this passage is bad: http://members.cox.net/jimmyakin/John_6_44--Correcting_An_Old_Mistake.htm

-He then says:

 

If the Father keeps drawing you, you will keep coming. But it doesn't say anything about the Father not drawing some people only for a time.

 

In verse 37, Christ says that He will not cast them out and that He will raise them up on the last day to eternal life (v.40).

 

John 10:27-28

Akin quotes:

 

“The verbs are present linear, indicating continuous action by the sheep and by the Shepherd, not the punctiliar fallacy of the past tense.” (Moody, 357) 

 

-OK.  How does that refute the Calvinist’s belief?  No Calvinist believes that one can receive eternal life sometime in the past and continue to receive eternal life even if they lost their faith.  (This is because we would say that they never had true faith in the first place, and thus, they never had eternal life.)

-This verse destroys Akin’s belief because Christ will never let perish those to whom He gives eternal life (v.28).

 

John 15

 (See my response above.)

 

1 John 2:19

-Akin says:

 

First, maybe the people under discussion were false Christians who had never been justified. So what? False Christians will leave. That doesn't prove all who leave are false Christians.

 

-That argument is destroyed by the phrase, “for if they had been of us, they would have remained with us”.  This clearly states that all true Christians will stay in the Christian faith.

- Next, Akin says:

 

Second, this is refering to antichrists--people who deny the incarnation of Jesus--it does not teach s any law about people who do believe in the incarnation.

 

-So?  The only way for John to condemn the actions and beliefs of any group is if it is universal to begin with (i.e. it applies to all groups).

-Then Akin states:

               

Third, my opponent is assuming that the “us” in the passage refers to true Christians, but that is false. As Augustine indicated, the “us” in the passage is the elect--the group of true Christians who are predestined to persevere, not the group which is not predestined to persevere.

 

-That it is about the elect is the whole point!  The ‘us’ in verse 19 is applied to the plural ‘you’ and ‘us’ in verses 20, 24-29, and the rest of the verses throughout the whole book!  In other words, John is saying that the people that he is writing to are the elect!  However, according to Akin’s theology, not even apostles can know that they are going to Heaven with certainty (see Akin’s comments on 1 Corinthians 9:24-27).  Of course, Akin’s beliefs are further contradicted by Philippians 4:3 where Paul tells others that they are in the Book of Life (i.e. part of the elect).

-Akin says:

               

Fourth, sure they are not of us when they went out from us. But that doesn't mean they were never of us. 

 

He then quotes a Protestant Greek scholar saying that it could be rendered that way.

-I’m not a Greek scholar, and I’m not going to dispute the possibility of the rendering.

-The main question is context.  In 1 John 3:6 and 9, John says, “No one who abides in him sins; no one who sins has seen Him or knows Him…No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.”  The question that I have for Akin is: Is apostasy sin?  The obvious answer is yes.  Then, the apostate cannot have been born of God since no one who is born of God can commit the kind of sins that John is speaking of.

-Finally Akin says:

 

Fifth, if you read the whole discussion of the antichrists in 1 John 2:18-29, it is very clear Christians can fall away, for John says: “Let what you heard from the beginning abide in you. If what you heard from the beginning abides in you, then you will abide in the Son and in the Father. And this is what he has promised us, eternal life. I write this to you about those who would deceive you; And now, little children, abide in him, so that when he appears we may have confidence and not shrink from him in shame at his coming.” (1Jn2:24-26, 28) So you can fail to abide in Jesus, and my opponent is simply taking this verse out of context.

 

-See my refutation above of Akin’s interpretation of 1 John 2:28.

-The sense of what John is saying here is: “Abide in Him and prove that you are born of Him.”  That would much more clearly explain 2:19 than Akin’s explanation would.

 

Romans 8:29-30

-Akin states:

 

There are a bunch of reasons why his interpretation of this passage won’t work, but the key one is that, as I pointed out in my opening remarks, the kind of predestination being referred to in this passage is predestination to glory. Thus it is absolutely true that all those who are predestined to glory end up being called, justified, and glorified.

 

-He never established that there is a difference between being predestined to grace (i.e. being justified) and being predestined to glory.

-He then says:

 

But that doesn’t meanall who are called and justified are chosen for glory, for “Many are called, but few are chosen.”

 

-See my refutation on Akin’s use of Matthew 22:14 above.

-He’s trying to interpret the meaning of one author by the saying of another.  While this may sometimes work, he still has yet to establish that the saying of Jesus in Matthew has the same meaning as Paul uses it.

-He then states:

 

1) He says we are predestined to be conformed to the image of the Son, and while this is in one sense a process, it reaches its final and definitive fulfillment when we see Jesus, either at death or at the Second Coming, as 1 Corinthians 15:49 and 1 John 3:2 indicate. 2) I’m sure my opponent would not say that these people were only predestined to begin to be conformed to the image of the Son and not predestined to finish being conformed to the image of the Son.  3) The reference to glorification most probably indicates eschatological glorification, but in this passage, glorification, justification, and calling are outworkings of the predestination, which is itself an outworking of the foreknowing or, more accurately, “fore-loving” of God.  Thus the kind of predestination spoken of here includes calling, justification, and glorification, as I’m sure my opponent would agree.

 

-I’m failing to see how this refutes the argument made by White.

 

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Also, some helpful audio on this topic can be found at:

http://www.straitgate.com/aom/dl/99.htm (Feb. 13)

Some helpful online reading can be found here:

http://aomin.org/eternalsecurity.html

http://aomin.org/johnchapter6.html

http://members.aol.com/jasonte2/law.htm

http://www.the-highway.com/assurance_Ryle.html

Suggested reading:

-         Robert Morey, Studies in the Atonement (Las Vegas, Nevada: Christian Scholars Press, 1989).

-         James R. White, The Sovereign Grace of God (Lindenhurst, New York: Reformation Press, 2003).

-         James R. White, The Potter’s Freedom (Amityville, New York: Calvary Press Publishing, 2000). 

 

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A Defense of the

Perseverance of the

Saints

(Part 3)