Roman Catholics, Mormons, Jehovah’s Witnesses, and other ‘Christian’ groups use James 2:24 to support their beliefs on salvation. However, such an interpretation ignores the context of the passage. This article will deal with the exegesis of this passage and ask important questions of those groups who use James 2:24 to support their beliefs. All Scripture quotes are from the NASB.
Exegesis
James
2:14-26
What use is it, my brethren, if someone says he has faith but he has no works? Can that faith save him? If a brother
or sister is without clothing and in need of daily food, and one of you says to them, “Go in peace, be warmed and be filled,”
and yet you do not give them what is necessary for their body, what use is that? Even so faith, if it has no works, is dead, being
by itself. But someone may well say, “You have faith and I have works; show me your faith without the works, and I will show
you my faith by my works.” You believe that God is one. You do well; the demons also believe, and shudder. But are you
willing to recognize, you foolish fellow, that faith without works is useless? Was not Abraham our father justified by works
when he offered up Isaac his son on the altar? You see that faith was working with his works, and as a result of the works,
faith was perfected; and the Scripture was fulfilled which says, “AND ABRAHAM BELIEVED GOD, AND IT WAS RECKONED TO HIM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS,”
and he was called the friend of God. You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone. In the same
way, was not Rahab the harlot also justified by works when she received the messengers and sent them out by another way? For
just as the body without the spirit is dead, so also faith without works is dead.
Introduction:
If James
James
2:14
What use is it, my brethren, if someone says he has faith but he has no works? Can that faith save him?
Commentary:
James asks a
rhetorical question, whether a person who professes belief in Christ but whose life has no good works can be saved. The obvious
answer is no.
It has been pointed out that the second question here literally says, “Can the faith save him?” This is
often used to say that faith cannot save someone from post-baptismal sins. [This is the case for Roman Catholicism. Mormons
or Jehovah’s Witnesses interpret James in a much more Pelagian fashion saying that one must add good works to their faith in order
to be accepted as one of God’s elect in the first place. Why Roman Catholics do not interpret it in the way Mormons or Jehovah’s
Witnesses do is apparent. They do not exegete this text of Scripture based on the straight forward meaning of the text itself
(if James has the same meaning as Paul), but instead, they eisegete the text (i.e. read into it) on the basis of an outside authority.] However, the first question gives us context to the meaning of the second. The phrase, ‘the faith’, corresponds to the professed faith
of the individual who has no works. Also, v.18 likewise plays a role in determining the context as we shall see. Thus,
the best meaning of ‘the faith’ is not ‘faith’ in general but ‘the faith that is his’ (referring to the kind of faith that the person
has) or ‘that kind of faith’.
James 2:15-16
If a brother or sister is without clothing and
in need of daily food, and one of you says to them, “Go in peace, be warmed and be filled,” and yet you do not give them what
is necessary for their body, what use is that?
Commentary:
James
gives an example of a man who has professed faith but does not have works. The man gives assent to the fact that caring for
the poor is good, but he does not actually do it.
James 2:17
Even so faith, if it has no works, is dead, being by itself.
Commentary:
And thus, James clearly states that an intellectual assent to revealed truth is not enough. Someone who has no works has a dead
faith.
James 2:18
But someone may well say, “You have faith and I have works; show me your faith without the works, and I will
show you my faith by my works.”
Commentary:
The key phrase in this
verse is: ‘I will show you my faith by my works.’ This verse proves that James is not saying that good works somehow expiate
sin. Rather, one proves his faith by doing good works, and if that man has no good works, then he does not have a true saving
faith but only has an intellectual assent to the truth like the demons (see v.19). John said something similar in 1 John 2:3-5
(emphasis mine):
“By this we know that we have come to know Him, if we keep His commandments. The one who says, “I have
come to know Him,” and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him; but whoever keeps His word, in him
the love of God has truly been perfected. By this we know that we are in Him…”
-1 John 2:3-5
Again, works are the means of proving a true living faith, but they are not the means of expiating sin.
Something else must be noted here. If James is saying that works prove a true faith, then he is obviously eliminating the possibility
of someone having a true faith that has no works. Mormons, Jehovah’s Witnesses, and Roman Catholics who use this passage (v.14-26)
try to make it say that someone who has a true faith needs to have good works in order to be justified.
James 2:19-20
You believe
that God is one. You do well; the demons also believe, and shudder. But are you willing to recognize, you foolish fellow, that
faith without works is useless?
Commentary:
James is talking to the
hypothetical person (who has the kind of ‘dead’ faith mentioned in v.17) and says that the demons of Hell also believe that ‘God is
one’ (i.e. they give a mere intellectual assent to the truth). He then asks a rhetorical question of that person whether he
now believes that a mere intellectual assent to truth can save someone. The obvious answer is no.
James 2:21-23
Was not
Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up Isaac his son on the altar? You see that faith was working with his
works, and as a result of the works, faith was perfected; and the Scripture was fulfilled which says, “AND ABRAHAM BELIEVED GOD, AND
IT WAS RECKONED TO HIM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS,” and he was called the friend of God.
Commentary:
On the surface, this verse would seem to suggest Pelagianism (i.e. the need to add good works to your faith to become a child of God). However, if we recall the context that was given in verse 18, we can see that James is looking at someone’s life as a whole for proof of
a true, living, and justifying faith. Thus, it is only a true faith which results in works that justifies a man. A mere
intellectual assent to truth will never result in justification. In this sense alone can it be said that a man is justified
by works.
James 2:24
You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone.
Commentary:
James states again that a person whose life does not result in good works was never justified in the first place. James is condemning
someone who only has a mere intellectual assent to the truth (see v.19).
James 2:25
In the same way, was not Rahab the harlot
also justified by works when she received the messengers and sent them out by another way?
Commentary:
[Same comments as verses 21-23]
James 2:26
For just as the body without the spirit is dead, so also faith without works is dead.
Commentary:
James repeats his condemnation of a dead faith (i.e. a mere intellectual assent to truth which does not result in good works).
Thus, I concur with Martin Luther in saying that a man is justified by faith alone (i.e. the usage of Paul) but not by a faith that
is alone (i.e. the usage of James). That is, a man receives the expiation of sins only as a result of faith, but only if that
faith includes intellectual assent, regeneration, and repentance which result in good works.
It is worthy to note that even some Roman Catholics are coming to realize that this passage cannot support their Church’s dogma, and
thus, they are interpreting James in the same way Protestants would (see the Anchor Bible Commentary’s volume on James by Luke Timothy
Johnson).
Questions for Certain Groups
Everyone agrees that James and Paul both use the same definition of ‘to justify’,
but Protestant Evangelicals don’t agree with the other groups’ belief that James is using ‘justified by works’ in the same way that
Paul uses ‘justified by faith’ (i.e. a disagreement about phraseology). Having said that, I have a few questions that members
of certain groups need to ask themselves.
Roman Catholics
1. If James is using the same phraseology as Paul, then does that
not result in the heresy of Pelagianism?
2. If you object and limit James’ words to post-baptismal life, then where do you get
that from the text itself?
3. Does it not make sense to interpret this passage in light of the rest of Scripture which says that no amount of works will ever give anyone a greater standing before God (Romans 3:20, 4:6)?
4. In fact, don’t the Scriptures say that all Laws of works can only condemn and not expiate sin (Romans 3:19-20, Galatians 3:21)?
5. Doesn’t justification by works
lead to boasting which is condemned in Scripture (Romans
6. Is not faith the only thing that God
will ever accept for the expiation of sin (Luke 7:48-50, Romans 3:28, 5:1)?
7. Why do you ignore verse 18 in giving context to
verse 24? Doesn’t verse 18 prove the interpretation that James is saying that good works prove that one has a ‘living’ (i.e.
saving) faith?
8. Doesn’t verse 18 eliminate the possibility of someone having a true faith without works as your Church
suggests?
9. Doesn’t verse 18 prove that James was never suggesting that works are accepted for the expiation of sin as many
of your apologists suggest?
10. What in the text itself gives you the right to say that Paul is only speaking of someone prior
to initial justification, but then turn around and say that James is speaking of someone after initial justification?
11. Isn’t
your interpretation of this text based on the stated dogmas of your Church and not on the basis of the text itself?
Mormons and
Jehovah’s Witnesses
1. Why do you force the text to teach Pelagianism when such a teaching is clearly condemned by the rest of Scripture (Ephesians 2:8-9, Titus 3:5)?
2. Does it not make sense to interpret this passage in light of the rest of Scripture which says that no amount of works will ever give anyone a greater standing before God (Romans 3:20, 4:6)?
3. Doesn’t God reward all believers with eternal life independent of the amount of good works (Matthew 20:1-16)?
4. In fact, don’t the Scriptures say that all Laws of works can only condemn and not expiate sin (Romans 3:19-20, 27, Galatians 3:21)?
5. Doesn’t justification
by works lead to boasting which is condemned in Scripture (Romans
6. Is not faith the only thing that God will ever accept for the expiation of sin (Luke 7:48-50, Romans 3:28, 5:1)?
7. Why do you ignore verse 18 in giving
context to verse 24? Doesn’t verse 18 prove the interpretation that James is saying that good works prove that one has a ‘living’
(i.e. saving) faith?
8. Doesn’t verse 18 eliminate the possibility of someone having a true faith without works as your Church
suggests?
9. Doesn’t verse 18 prove that James was never suggesting that works are accepted for the expiation of sin as many
of your apologists suggest?
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Also, some helpful audio on this topic can be found at:
http://www.straitgate.com/webster/
http://www.christiantruth.com/realaudio.html (The Gospel of the Reformation, Tape #3)
Some helpful online reading can be found here:
http://members.aol.com/jasonte3/rsreply.htm
http://aomin.org/NotByWorks.html
http://aomin.org/LDSGrace.html
Suggested
reading:
- Robert Morey, Studies in the Atonement (Las Vegas, Nevada: Christian Scholars Press, 1989).
- James R. White, The God Who Justifies (
- James R. White, The Roman Catholic Controversy (Minneapolis, Minnesota: Bethany House Publishers, 1996).
- William Webster, The Church of Rome at
the Bar of History (Carlisle, Pennsylvania: The Banner of Truth Trust, 1995).
- William Webster, The Gospel of the Reformation (Battle Ground, Washington: Christian Resources, 1997).
James 2:14-26